Indeed – and we have two clear intentions on display here: he intended to drive his car while under the influence of alcohol, and he intended to flee the scene of the accident in a thankfully failed attempt to save his skin and career.
Are you saying these should be deemed irrelevant when apportioning blame – in other words, that there should be no practical difference between accidental deaths caused through genuine accidents or through contributory negligence?
]]>So if I get pissed and run about with a machete and someone’s daft enough to get sliced in half, I shouldn’t get penalised?
So, your honour, is this because:
a) I didn’t *intend* to hurt anyone, I just wanted to wave my machete around while drunk or
b) I knew the risks but didn’t intend to hurt anyone in particular – I didn’t know who, so it doesn’t matter or
c) It’s different because it’s a car and you know, it’s different in cars?
(Gary Hart should have hanged, by the way)
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